Counterintuitive fact o' the day (and one I'm a little embarrassed I just learned).
Let's say you run an experiment on a sample population.
You do this by dividing the population into two subgroups and running the experiment on each separately. The experiment succeeds for each subgroup.
If the experiment succeeded for each sub-sample, then it necessarily succeeded for the combined sample, right?
Nope. Sometimes an experiment's apparent success on two samples disappears when the samples are...
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